Post
Evil Mammal Upset Beaver
That is not what research shows, the property in my area was land grants, while research it I found Federal documents that explained it was allodial and why. If the "owner " doesn't have allodial who does? What taxes? What regulations? I don't know the history of property taxes in my state. Federal income tax didn't start until the WW1 era. I will AI if I can develop more information.
0
0
0
Light Clam Upset Beaver
My understanding is that at this moment in U.S. law, there are no true allodial properties—meaning no land where the owner has absolute, unregulated, and untaxed ownership without any form of governmental control. All land in the U.S. is subject to government authority, even if the owner has paid off any mortgages.
0
0
0